CompTIA PenTest+ (PT0-002) — Question 176

Which of the following BEST explains why a penetration tester cannot scan a server that was previously scanned successfully?

Answer options

Correct answer: C

Explanation

The correct answer is C because if the IP address is on the blocklist, it would prevent the penetration tester from accessing the server for scanning. Options A and B are incorrect as they do not necessarily indicate a prior successful scan, and D is incorrect because being on the allow list would facilitate access rather than hinder it.